A rather humorous cartoon on James White’s site* yesterday brought to mind the old Catholic claim that Catholics don’t actually worship Mary, they only venerate her. They claim to be offering latreia (λατρεια), not douleia (δουλεια).

I’m no Greek scholar; I’ll admit that up front. However, I still think I can make some basic observations based on lexical definitions and word usage in the text.

The word latreia, or its corresponding verb form, is found in the following New Testament passages:

• Matthew 4:10;
• Luke 1:74; 2:37; 4:8;
• John 16:2;
• Acts 7:7, 42; 24:14; 26:7; 27:23;
• Romans 1:9, 25; 9:4; 12:1;
• Philippians 3:3;
• 2 Timothy 1:3;
• Hebrews 8:5; 9:1, 6, 9, 14; 10:2; 12:28; 13:10;
• Revelation 7:15; 22:3;

In all but two of these passages, Acts 7:42 and Romans 1:25, latreia is directed toward God; and in those two exceptions, it’s not a good thing — it is idolatry.

In Matthew 4:10 and Luke 4:8, it is made clear that God alone is to be the object of our latreia.

It is written, “You shall worship the Lord your God and serve (latreuo) Him only.”

So I ask, how is it helpful to distinguish between douleia and latreia in defending the “veneration” of Mary? Using Scripture alone, can this be defended? Or is it true, as James White is fond of pointing out, just because Rome says so?